Within the Gospel of John there is a passage that has come to be used by Trinitarians in the manner that we have just described.  Amazingly, even if one views this text in agreement with the core interpretation provided by Trinitarians it does not prove their doctrine!  Nevertheless, they persist.  Within this article we will closely consider this passage and see what it is really saying. Then we will conclude with a look at the passage from the Trinitarian perspective to show how their reading of the text does not support their argument from it. 

Our passage is not commonly referred to by Trinitarians, but they consider it to be a proof text.  In fact, it is typically those relative few who have made an in-depth study of the doctrine that are even aware of how the text is used by them.  The twelfth chapter of John, verses 38-41, references two passages from the book of Isaiah.  The first comes from Isaiah 53, presenting the prophecy of the suffering servant, the Messiah.  The other is from Isaiah 6, where Isaiah saw Jehovah on his throne in a vision.  Following the quotation of these two texts we read:  “Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory and spoke about him.” 

The Trinitarian argument rests in Isaiah viewing Jehovah within Isaiah 6.  More specifically the Septuagint reads of Isaiah's viewing of Jehovah's glory.  As John speaks of Isaiah seeing "his [Jesus'] glory" and one of the two passages quoted in John is from Isaiah 6, it is argued that "his glory" is Jehovah's glory and so Jesus is Jehovah.  In fact, the entire argument is rather circular for it assumes the very thing that it is attempting to prove.  Nevertheless, there is much more to be said about this text.

A careful study of John's statement reveals a significant difficulty for the Trinitarian position.  They have seen the words "his glory" in John 12 and that the text speaks of God's "glory" in the Septuagint of Isaiah 6.  They have also seen that John quoted two texts, one being Isaiah 6 and so they argue that the text supports them theologically.  Admittedly, without a close study of the text their argument seems very reasonable, yet when a careful examination is made the meaning of the passage proves to be quite different.

After having quoted Isaiah 53:1 and 6:10 the apostle John comments with the words in John 12:41.  John does not say when Isaiah said what he said, but he gives the basis for him saying what he said, saying: "Isaiah said these things because..." Comparing the quoted texts in their original context along with the basis that John provides for Isaiah's statement allows us to determine which statement John had in mind when he said what he said.

Examining Isaiah 6 we can find no evidence to support the idea of Isaiah having said the words in verse 9-10 because of the reasons defined in John 12:41.  To observe that Isaiah did see God in Isaiah 6 does nothing to show the recording of Isaiah 6:10 was based upon that sight.  Similarly, nothing indicates that Isaiah recorded the words "because he spoke of him."  Isaiah "said" the words of 6:10 because he was commanded to, not because he saw anyone's glory or because he spoke about one that he saw.

When we consider the numerous other prophecies that Isaiah "said" none were based upon seeing God or speaking about him.  They were all "said" because God had commanded that he do so.  As nothing in Isaiah 6 makes the prophecy uttered in verses 9-10 based upon his viewing God and speaking about him, there is simply no reasonable basis for concluding that the apostle John had Isaiah 6 in mind when he made the observation presented in 12:41.  Quite to the contrary, he was contemplating Isaiah 53:1. 

Referencing Isaiah 53, the first text quoted by John, Isaiah clearly speaks of Jesus, the Messiah.  In Isaiah 52:13 the prophet begins speaking of the Messiah, his work and how he would be responded to.  This discussion continues throughout the entire 53^rd chapter. 

How did Isaiah see his glory so as to cause him to make the statement of 53:1?  Isaiah saw the Messiah through prophetic foresight, viewing him receiving glorification (Isa. 52:13), and beyond that he saw the glory of the Messiah in his work.  Isaiah went on to explain that he had foreseen that the Messiah would suffer for us all, that he would bear our sins and that he would be delivered. (Isa. 53:3-4, 12)  It was his work in doing these things in our behalf that Isaiah foresaw, and it was this work that was truly his glory.  He lived, suffered and died, by which he “bore the sins of many,” (Isa. 53:12) resulting in our salvation. 

But how was Isaiah beholding his glory?  In Isaiah chapter 6 Isaiah saw Jehovah’s glory by an actual manifestation.  Yet a person's glory can also be seen in their activities.  If we consider the use of the term translated glory elsewhere in the book of John we find that it does not always refer to a brightness or some type of outshining of glory, but it references the viewing of powerful works and special activities.   

The resurrection of Lazarus is recorded in John 11.  Here John explains that Martha approached Jesus and inquired of why he wanted the stone rolled away from the tomb.  Jesus responds in saying that she would see the glory of God. (Joh. 11:39-40)  This glory was not a bright light that was seen, similar to what Stephen saw just before his death. (Act. 7:55)  Rather, the glory of God was seen in that God, through Jesus, raised Lazarus to life.  Robertson explains: “Jesus means the glory of God as shown in the resurrection of Lazarus as he had already said to the disciples (John 11:4) and as he meant Martha to understand (John 11:25) and may in fact have said to her.”[1]  The glory of God was seen in what God did, and so with Jesus, in his bearing our sins and redeeming us, his glory was seen.  This is just as it was in John 2:11, where Jesus' "glory [was] manifest" not in a physical out showing, but in the work that he did. 

Why, though, did John reference Isaiah 6 after he had already quoted Isaiah 53 only to then reference the basis for Isaiah's statement?  Looking closely at the text we see that "they did not believe on him so that the word of Isaiah the prophet [in Isaiah 53:1] might be fulfilled."  (Joh. 12:37-38)  In quoting Isaiah 53:1 John was showing that they were unable to believe.  They were not able to believe to fulfill this prophecy, but what was causing this unbelief to take place?  John answers this by quoting from Isaiah 6:1, providing the basis for the unbelief that 53:1 defined.  In John's text Isaiah 53:1 provided the foundation of his discussion, while 6:1 was merely supplemental. 

While many would like to take the reference to Jesus’ glory in John 12 to be Jehovah’s glory in Isaiah 6, the fact that the text quoted by John was said “because” of what Isaiah saw and spoke of, it is an argument without a foundation.  What Isaiah said in the passage quoted from Isaiah 6 was said because God commanded him to, saying: "Go and say to this people..."  On the other hand, the text quoted from Isaiah 53 presented Isaiah's own words.  The events that he had prophetically foreseen and went on to define prompting him to ask the questions provided in the text. In line with this The College Press NIV Commentary relates: "As John points out, Isaiah himself had a basic understanding of this astounding unfaith. Isaiah experienced unbelieving rejection in his own ministry, but even more he saw Jesus’ glory [death/resurrection] and spoke about him."[2]  [brackets original to the reference]   Clearly it is more natural to see John having Isaiah 53 in mind, for the context makes such a reference highly fitting. 

When we consider John 12 we find that Isaiah 53:1 is quoted and is the primary text in view, whereas the passage from Isaiah 6 is cited to only further explain this primary text.  Indeed, it is in vain that Trinitarians have tried to argue from this text, for when we carefully examine the passage it simply does not support their position.  Even if we accept their view of John’s words so as to have John referring to Isaiah 6 in John 12:41, this would tell us nothing other than that Jesus was God’s agent.  He appeared as God’s representative and as such, for Isaiah to see him was legally the same as his beholding God.  (See Joh. 12:45; Heb. 3:1-6; Num. 12:5-8, cf. Joh. 1:18)   If this were the case (though is no to assume it is) the most it would mean is found in the position taken by The Expositor’s Greek Testament: “This involves that the Theophanies of the O[ld] T[estament] were mediated by the pre-existent Logos.[3] [Emphasis added]